this post was submitted on 23 Oct 2024
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They know exactly what they are doing (i.imgur.com)
submitted 10 hours ago by [email protected] to c/[email protected]
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[–] [email protected] 3 points 3 hours ago (1 children)

You are correct. In my defence:

In Old English, ⟨ð⟩ (called ðæt) was used interchangeably with ⟨þ⟩ to represent the Old English dental fricative phoneme /θ/ or its allophone /ð/, which exist in modern English phonology as the voiceless and voiced dental fricatives both now spelled ⟨th⟩.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 3 hours ago

Oh ha. Looks like you looked it up as I was looking it up.

Still, whatever it is, doesn't really answer the original question which was about why the user above was doing it.