this post was submitted on 24 Jul 2023
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Virgin birth =! immaculate conception
Can you explain the difference? I always heard those two terms used interchangeably.
Not op, but my understanding is that it comes down to Christians belief in original sin, and that all women are basically unclean because of that thing the first woman ever did. If all women are unclean, then how can one give birth to the son of God? Mary was immaculately conceived, created without sin, so that she could be a holy, pure vessel for Christ, therefore her conception was immaculate. When that angel or whatever impregnated Mary she still hadn't lain with a man, therefore jesus' birth was virginal. Since Jesus was a man he presumably was born without original sin, from a woman who was also without original sin, otherwise he couldn't have been the messiah.