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We're not talking about what they currently do though. The question is what they should do in order to be fair and non-parasitic. Where the threshold lies between parasitic and non-parasitic.
So far, I understand that you're convinced ownership is necessary if any payment is involved. What I don't understand is why*. We agreed that people should be paid for their labour. What makes home rentals special in that regard?
* Mainly to understand how a system with such a rule can make sense.
Sell their properties to their tenants, or grant tenants equity in the property based on how much they pay in rent (ie, co-ownership).
For an exchange to not be parasitic, both parties must gain something equal to what they lose. This, by definition, means that a renter must be able to pay zero dollars for rent in months where the landlord doesn't have to make a mortgage payment and doesn't need to do any maintenance on the property.
As I've already said, landlords don't provide a service equivalent to the payment provided, and the indefinite nature of a lease makes it impossible for a landlord to ever provide value equal to what a renter pays. As long as a tenant lives in a rented space, they have to pay a fee for the privilege, even if they've paid enough to pay for the mortgage many times over. You can't convince me that a landlord can provide potentially multiple properties worth of value over the span of a lease.
Can we keep the context of what we've previously discussed instead of rewinding the conversation and repeating ourselves? I thought we agreed earlier that it's fair for tenants to pay for expenses related to usage of the home and it makes sense to distribute that over time across all tenants.
Did I misunderstand what you're saying here? I understood it as meaning that an itemized bill for your rent with the ability to negotiate in order to come to a fair deal for both parties is sufficient condition to qualify as non-parasitic.
Nor would I ever try to because I don't believe they do either.
Here's my point: if landlords change basically everything about how "renting" works so that it's basically indistinguishable from property ownership from the tenant's point of view, they'd qualify to be non-parasitic.
Yes, you've already said this but it doesn't answer the question. Repeating yourself won't change that. What I asked when I originally responded to you was why the simpler alternative of renting at cost isn't acceptable. So far, you've told me
Which can mean any of the following:
I'll rule out #1 because you also said
Which means you do acknowledge the existence of a cost to rental units.
So what is it that you don't agree with? Is it one of the things I've listed, or did I miss something?