this post was submitted on 17 Sep 2024
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You can't prove a negative, screwball. It's literally impossible to prove "never took advantage of anyone" about anyone, billionaire or not.
Not that you aren't almost certainly using an overbroad definition of 'take advantage', on top of it.
No, you aren't. People who are don't play these kinds of semantic games.
If you were following burden of proof, you could stake your claim on particular billionaires who you say never exploited anyone, and it would then be on the other fellow to prove they did exploit people. Without example billionaires, however, your claim is nebulous and no one has any particular reason to believe in it.