this post was submitted on 06 Sep 2024
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thats not really helpful, could you explain to me where i was wrong?
i dont mean to sound like "i know im right" or something. i actually just want to know
Extremely drunk people are not in the state of mind to consent
but if they got drunk knowing what they were drinking (like not being drugged or something similar) and commit a crime, they can still be liable, right?
How is that relevant?
both things are crimes commited while drunk, and i believe in both instances the person is liable for commiting the crime.
Maybe I'm missing the point. I thought we were talking about consent, and now one cannot give consent while very drunk.
i was talking about how she was sexually assaulting the guy