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Big scared (lemmy.ml)

submitted 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago) by [email protected] to c/[email protected]

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[–] [email protected] 3 points 5 months ago (1 children)

Is that the "lay with another man" bit? I'm pretty sure there's arguments over the original text, and scholars think it originally meant "don't have sex with little boys" not don't have sex with men.

[–] [email protected] -2 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago) (1 children)

It's very specific, and it's in many places across the entire Bible. It's written with the same concept, in different ways, leaving no room for misinterpretation when you read the entire thing. I just finished the new testament, can confirm it's spread across that entire thing in different ways too. Here are 3 of them:

Romans 1:26-27 (NIV):

"Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural sexual relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed shameful acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their error."

1 Corinthians 6:9-10 (NIV):

"Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God."

1 Timothy 1:9-10 (NIV):

"We also know that the law is made not for the righteous but for lawbreakers and rebels, the ungodly and sinful, the unholy and irreligious, for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers, for the sexually immoral, for those practicing homosexuality, for slave traders and liars and perjurers—and for whatever else is contrary to the sound doctrine."

[–] [email protected] 1 points 5 months ago

Not that I actually consider the Bible to be an authoritative source on morality (see: slavery), but are those faithful to the original texts? I only ask because it's my understanding that sexuality wasn't viewed as a straight-gay spectrum back then, but instead as a dominate-submissive spectrum. Like, if they were to actually have a problem with same sex acts, it was more to do with messing with the social order than any inherit sexuality problems.