this post was submitted on 08 Nov 2023
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[–] [email protected] 2 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (37 children)

"death to america" does refer to an end to the US empire- not the American people. I've talked with a fair number of Iranians who dislike their own government and Americas reign of terror around the world.

From "the river to the sea" means an end to the apartheid government in occupied Palestine. It's projection from the murderous settlers that a unified non-apartheid state would mean their own extermination- because that's what they do to the undesirables in their unified state.

The government isn't the people.

Marg bar Amrika

[–] [email protected] -3 points 1 year ago (36 children)

Reach.

Even if it is an Iranian cultural phrase that's lost in translation into English, it lacks context. You've given the Iranian cultural context, but you're completely ignoring the global context: the Holocaust of 6 million Jews and the recent terror attack that killed and took hostages of hundreds of Israeli civilians. Hamas has, quite literally, brought "death to Israel."

If something needs context and explanation to not be antisemitic, it's probably best to not say that thing rather than risk being antisemitic. Otherwise, you're just demonstrating that you don't care if you're sounding antisemitic.

Peace be with you.

[–] [email protected] -2 points 1 year ago (6 children)

Comparing the hamas attack to the holocaust is like comparing an indigenous people's raid of settler encampments to the holocaust. It is wildly inappropriate and ignores the difference in power between Jewish people under the nazis and Jewish people in a White Jewish ethnostate

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

I did not compare these two events.

[–] [email protected] -2 points 1 year ago (1 children)

This part of the post

the Holocaust of 6 million Jews and the recent terror attack that killed and took hostages of hundreds of Israeli civilians.

Makes it sound like you think they're of similar themes. Theyre not. One was a wholesale slaughter of an oppressed minority, the other was anticolonial violence directed at settlers.

[–] [email protected] -1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Both involve the killing of innocent civilians based on their racioethnic group.

Different scale, motivation, morals, etc? Yes. Still, they give both context to saying "death to Israel" because they prove that the statement is being used in a violent way.

[–] [email protected] -2 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 children)

Both involve the killing of innocent civilians based on their racioethnic group

This is reductionist. You need to wipe away of the context of a white Jewish supremacist apartheid state vs the context of being scapegoats for the nazis for your position to make sense.

Also settlers aren't civilians, settlement is part of an extended military campaign of genocide.

Yes. Still, they give both context to saying “death to Israel” because they prove that the statement is being used in a violent way.

Violence is justified against settlers, violence isn't justified against an oppressed ethnic minority. They are distinct things.

[–] [email protected] -1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

settlers aren't civilians

Dehumanization, how original.

[–] [email protected] -2 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

Settlers are humans the same way soldiers are humans and the same way civilians are humans.

Bad faith nonsense in defense of settler colonialism, how original

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